| On the help message in your bereavement leave routine, it seems to suggest I should pay somebody
for one day if they feel "reasonably bereaved". Surely I have some sort of say in whether this is justified or not? The Department Of Labour mailout seems to suggest I get to determine whether it is reasonable or not.
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| Yes, you are right. The Dept Of Labour Quick Guide for Employers (Feb 2004) says
The employee is entitled to one day's leave for the death of any person if the employer accepts that the employee has suffered a bereavement.
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The single day's bereavement leave for a non family member is covered by Section 69(2)(b). Note the relevant factors in 69(3) which guide your say as to whether the bereavement is justified.
(b) on the death of any other person if the employer accepts, having regard to relevant factors such as those set out in subsection (3), that the
employee has suffered a bereavement as a result of the death.
(3) For the purposes of subsection (2)(b), relevant factors include
(a) the closeness of the association between the employee and the
deceased person:
(b) whether the employee has to take significant responsibility for all or any of the arrangements for the ceremonies relating to the death:
(c) any cultural responsibilities of the employee in relation to the death.
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